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SECTION I :
Select ONE answer
that is best for each question.
Regarding bacterial growth, the clinical signs of
infection are mainly correlate to:
a.
Latent phase
b.
Decline phase
c.
Logarithmic phase
d.
Death phase
Which of the following is not associated with the
cytoplasmic membrane?
a. Selective permeability b. Site of chemical reactions c. Enzyme production d. Maintain the integrity of cell shape
All Except one are diseases associated with group
B streptococci:
Post partum fever
Neonatal meningitis
Premature membrane ruptures
Scarlet fever
Which of the following bacteria do not produce
enterotoxin?
Salmonella typhimurium
Staphylococcus aureus
Shigella sonnei
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
All of the following statements about bacterial
spores are correct EXCEPT.
They are metabolic active forms of bacteria.
They are formed by Gram positive bacteria.
They can be killed by being heated to 121C for 15
minutes
They contain much less water than do bacterial
cell.
Sterilization in the hot-air oven is complete at:
121 oC
for 15 minutes
180 oC
for 15 minutes
120 oC
for 60 minutes
160 oC
for 60 minutes
All of the following compounds inhibit protein
synthesis EXCEPT.
Ciprofloxacin
Gentamicin
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
In transformation only one statement is TRUE.
Plasmids are the only genetic elements transferred.
Bridge between cells allows a strand of the F+
plasmid to pass from donor to recipient
Temperate phages are the preferred vehicles for
gene transfer.
Bacteria can be forced to incorporate foreign DNA
in the laboratory.
Regarding exotoxins, the following are true
EXCEPT.
Can be converted to toxoid.
Can be neutralized by antitoxins.
They are poorly antigenic
They are metabolic products of a growing cell.
Staph. epidermidis may be responsible for:
Food poisoning
Dental caries
Infection of prostheses
Impetigo
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is due to:
Meningococci
Pneumococci
Gonococci
Streptococci
All are water-born disease EXCEPT.
Cholera
Bacillary dysentery
Typhus fever
Typhoid fever
All of these diseases may be transmitted by lice
EXCEPT.
Epidemic relapsing fever
Undulent fever
Epidemic typhus
Trench fever
Blood culture is a common diagnostic test in all
of the following EXCEPT.
Brucellosis
Diphtheria
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Enteric fevers
All of the following are zoonotic disease EXCEPT.
Leptospirosis
Plaque
Anthrax
Tuberculoid leprosy
Acid Fastness of mycobacteria is mainly due to:
Cell wall thickness
Peptidoglycan
Lipid and waxy cell wall
Teichoic acid
All of the following statements about Mantoux test
are correct EXCEPT.
It is delayed hypersensitivity skin test
I.D. injection of 0.1 ml virulent tubercle bacilli.
Vaccinated person give positive results
Positive test indicates that person has been
infected in the past and still carry viable bacilli in some tissue
All of the following tests could be used for the
diagnosis of H. pylori infection EXCEPT.
Urea Breath test
Rapid urease test
Gastric biopsy
X-ray of abdomen
Regarding Bordetella pertussis all of the
following are true EXCEPT.
Strictly aerobic gram negative bacilli.
Causes a severe respiratory infection in infants
Requires X and V factors for growth
Vaccine is available for prevention of its
infection.
One of the following bacteria does not have H
antigens:
Vibrio cholerae
Salmonella typhi
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumonae
The causative agent of Q-fever is:
Rickettsia rickettsiae
Chlamydia trachomatis
Coxiella burnetti
Borrelia vincenti
The following are true for Streptococcus
pneumonia EXCEPT.
The produce incomplete hemolysis on blood agar
They have a polysaccharide capsule by which they
are typed.
Since there are very few capsular types, the typing
procedure is very simple to carry out.
They are identified in the laboratory by their
sensitivity to optochin
Pontiac fever is caused by one of the following
microorganisms:-
Klebsiella pneumonia
Listeria monocytogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Borrelia recurrentis
The unwell cooked rice food poisoning commonly
associated with:-
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium botulinum
Bacillus cereus
Brucella suis
Three organisms S. pneumonia, N. meningitides
and H. influenzae causes the vast majority of bacterial meningitis.
What are the most important features they share?
Protein A
Capsule
Endotoxin
β-lactamase
All of the following are true for Vibrio
cholerae EXCEPT.
Causative agent of cholera
Human carriers are the source of the organism in
endemic regions
Very few organisms are required to cause disease
Produces an enterotoxin (cholera toxin).
All of the following are true for Actinomyces
EXCEPT.
Free living particularly in soil.
Gram negative filaments
Causative agents of actinomycosis
Non motile organisms
All of the following are true for Listeria
monocytogenes EXCEPT.
Gram positive coccobacilli
Produces a small zone of beta-haemolysis
Non motile
Can cause neonatal infections
Brucellosis is an infection caused by Brucella
species and is spread by the following EXCEPT.
Unpasteurized milk
Blood transfusion
Person to person
Exposure to infected cattle
All of the following are true for Treponema
pallidum EXCEPT.
Causative agent of syphilis
Thayer Martin media used as selective media
Transmitted by sexual intercourse
Sensitive to penicillin
One of the following bacteria can cause bacillary
dysentery:
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Enteropathogenic E. coli
Enteroadherant E. coli
Enterohemorragic E. coli
Diagnosis of N. gonorrhoeae in a female
patient is best done by examination of a sample from:
Vaginal discharge
Cervix
Blood.
Urine
Each of the following statements concerning
Nocardia are true EXCEPT.
Are branched filamentous
Partially acid fast
Wild rodents are their reservoirs
N. asteroids causes infection in
immunocompromised patients
Brucella abortus is the major causative
agent of abortion:
In human
In animal
In animal and human
Non of the above
All of the following statements concerning
brucellosis are correct EXCEPT.
It is an occupational disease
It is caused by gram positive rods
It is a zoonotic disease
The causative agent localize in the
reticuloendothelial system.
According to MRSA all of the following are true
EXCEPT.
It is resistant to penicillin and cloxacillin
Responcible for nosocomial infection.
Resistance to β-lactam antibiotics may arise by
mutation in one of the penicillin binding proteins found in the cell
wall.
Resistance to vancomycin is common.
Regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the
following are true EXCEPT.
Produces an endotoxin
Their toxigenic strains are not invasive
A temperate bacteriophage carries the gene coding
for toxin production
Their toxins have two components A and B fragment
In Clostridium botulinum the major
virulence factor is:
Protein M
Capsule
Ability to survive with macrophages
Neurotoxin
To differentiate between Staphylococci and
Streptococci the test used is:
Coagulase test
Catalase test
Oxidase test
urease test
All of the following statements concerning
Clostridium tetani are correct EXCEPT.
Its spore forming gram-negative bacilli,.
Pathogenesis is due to the production of an
exotoxin.
Its obligate anaerobes.
Soil is the primary natural habitat
Which of the following microorganisms commonly
causes bacterial endocarditis:
Salmonella
Escherichia coli
Lancefield group A Streptococcus
Viridans streptococci
Which of the following diseases is not associated
with Bacteroides melaningenicus?
Periotonitis
Endocarditis
Brain and lung absecess
Intra-abdominal absecesses
All except one are associated with H.
influenzae in children:
Meningitis
Conjunctivitis
Epiglottitis
Cellulitis
Pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Mycoplasma Salivarium
Mycoplasma hominis
Non of the above
All of the following diseases are true for
dermatophytes EXCEPT.
Scalp infection
Nail infection
Meningitis
Skin infection
Which of the following component is not found in
fungi:
Chitin
Ergosterol
Periplasmic space
Mitochondria
Which of the following antifungal drug use to
treat dermatophytes:
Griseofulvin
Amphotericin B
Nystatin
Gentamicin
Which of the following fungi reproduce by budding:
Aspergillus species
Dermatophytes
Candida species
Madurella mycetomatis
Haematopoiesis means:
Blood cells production
Body cells production
Immune cells production only
General stem cells production only
Primary lymphoid tissues include
all of the following EXCEPT.
a.
Yolk sac
b.
Spleen
c.
Foetal liver
d.
Thymus
Non-encapsulated lymph nodes
include all of the following EXCEPT.
a.
Mucusal lymph nodes
b.
Payers patches
c.
Axillary lymph nodes
d.
Lymph nodes that filtrate the respiratory system
All of the following concerned
PALS (periarterial lymphatic sheet) EXCEPT.
a.
The site where the lymphocytes zone located
b.
Includes the T and B cells zones
c.
White pulp
d.
Red pulp
T cells maturation in the thymus
means the following EXCEPT.
a.
T cells stimulated to express TCR
b.
T cells stimulated to express CD4 or CD8
c.
T cells pass the negative and positive selection
d.
Clonal selection
Endophagocytosis can be performed
by the following EXCEPT.
a.
Neutrophils
b.
Monocytes
c.
Monocytes precursors
d.
Eosinophils
LGL is:
a.
ADCC
b.
T CD3
c.
TCR expresser cell
d.
Endophagocytic cell
Neutralization means:
a.
Destruction of the pathogen
b.
Inactivation of the pathogens or toxins
c.
Facilitate phagocytosis
d.
Enhance inflammation
Alternative pathway activation
factors include the following EXCEPT.
a. Formyl peptides b. Enterotoxin c. Lipopolysacharide d. Ag-Ab complex
Non-specific inflammation could be
performed by:
a.
Ag binding IgE on mast cells
b.
Ag binding IgE on basophils
c.
C3a and C5a bind their receptors on mast and
basophils cells
d.
Ag-Ab complex
All T-cells have one of the
following on their Surface:
a.
CD3
b.
CD4
c.
CD8
d.
CD28
phagocytosis could be enhanced by
one of the following:
a.
Adjuvant
b.
Hapten
c.
Hemolysis
d.
Opsonin
The immunoglobulin classes that
fetuses and infants gain passively from mother are:
a.
IgA and IgG
b.
IgD and IgM
c.
IgM and IgE
d.
IgE and IgD
The following are the main events
that occur during thymocytes development, EXCEPT.
a. Positive and negative selection
of T cells b. Differentiation of the T
cells subpopulation expressing CD4 or CD8 c. The generation of diverse T cell antigen
receptors d. Binding to infectious agents
The immune cell, which can only
act as an APC during secondary immune response is:
a.
MQ
b.
DC
c.
B cell
d.
T cell
Exogenous antigens can only expressed on:
a.
MHC I.
b.
MHC II.
c.
TCR.
d.
ICAM-1.
Humoral immunity could be blocked by:
a.
IFN-γ.
b.
IL-4.
c.
IL-10.
d.
CD3. All of
the following enhance opsonization EXCEPT
a.
IgG.
b.
IgA.
c.
C3b.
d.
IgM.
CD40 molecules on APCs enhance:
a.
Cellular immunity.
b.
Phagocytosis.
c.
Humoral immunity.
d.
Opsonization. All of
the following are considered as co-stimulatory factors EXCEPT.
a.
CD7.
b.
CD8.
c.
CD28.
d.
MHC molecules. All of
the following could be non-specific cellular immunity components EXCEPT.
a.
Mast cells and basophils.
b.
Macrophage.
c.
Natural killer.
d.
Tc-cell. The
following are considered as primary immunodeficiency diseases EXCEPT.
a.
Brutons disease.
b.
DiGeorge syndrome.
c.
AIDS.
d.
SCID. Which
of the following immune deficiency conditions is due to B cells defect:
a.
Chadiak-Hagashi syndrome.
b.
Cartilage hair hypoplasia.
c.
DiGeorge syndrome.
d.
Brutons disease. The
following represent autoimmunity of endocrine EXCEPT.
a.
Hashimoto thyroditis.
b.
Graves disease.
c.
Goodpastures syndrome.
d.
Addisons disease.
Multiple sclerosis indicates that:
a.
Antibodies produced against acetylcholine
receptors.
b.
Antibodies produced against basement membrane of
glomerulus.
c.
Antibodies produced against myelin sheath of the
neurons.
d.
Antibodies produced against B12 receptors. All of
the following are examples of type IV hypersensitivity reaction EXCEPT.
a.
Mantoux test (tuberculin test).
b.
Contact dermatitis.
c.
Lepromin test.
d.
Arthus reaction. Tissue
transplants between genetically not identical individuals of the same
species is:
a.
Isograft.
b.
Autograft.
c.
Xenograft.
d.
Allograft. The
feature of influenza A virus that contributes to antigenic variation is:
a.
RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
b.
Segmented genome.
c.
High glycogen content which enhances binding to
nucleoproteins.
d.
Haemagglutinin (HA) consists of HA1 and HA2. The
following viruses can cause vesicular skin lesions EXCEPT.
a.
HSV I.
b.
YFV.
c.
Vaccinia viruses.
d.
Coxsackie viruses. Which
of these central nervous system diseases is not caused by prion:
a.
Kuru.
b.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
c.
Autosomal familial insomnia.
d.
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. All of
the following statements concerning rabies are true, EXCEPT.
a.
Wild dogs and vampire bats are the source of
infection.
b.
Inclusion bodies or negri bodies are diagnostic
of rabies.
c.
Viremia occurs 2-3 weeks after infection.
d.
The disease can be prevented by live attenuated
vaccines.
Chickenpox:
a.
Is an acute infection with an avian poxvirus.
b.
The skin lesions are non-infectious.
c.
The virus remains latent in T-lymphocytes.
d.
Reactivation of latent virus may cause herpes
zoster. Which
of the following viruses is not enveloped:
a.
Pox viruses.
b.
Hepadna.
c.
Picornaviruses.
d.
Toga viruses. Which
of the following does not cause diarrhea in children:
a.
Rotavirus.
b.
Adenovirus.
c.
Norwalk virus.
d.
Coxsackievirus. Which
of the following microorganism is not teratogenic:
a.
Rubella virus.
b.
Cytomegalovirus.
c.
Parvo B19 virus.
d.
Treponema pallidum. In
mumps, one statement is TRUE.
a.
Incubation period is 2-3 weeks.
b.
The disease is very infectious.
c.
Virus can be isolated from stool.
d.
The disease can be prevented by passive
immunization.
Regarding rubella, one statement is FALSE.
a.
Is a member of the togaviridae.
b.
Is arthropod-borne.
c.
Can be grown in cell culture.
d.
Is rapidly inactivated at 56ΊC. In
paramyxoviruses, one answer is TRUE.
a.
Segmented, single stranded RNA virus.
b.
Pleomorphic, double stranded DNA virus.
c.
Cause syncytia formation in infected tissues.
d.
Vaccination is not recommended. The
following are an obligatory intracellular microorganism, EXCEPT.
a.
Rickets.
b.
Echoviruses.
c.
Chlamydia psittacci.
d.
Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Rhinoviruses have the following, EXCEPT.
a.
They are small RNA viruses.
b.
They are spherical.
c.
They are not enveloped.
d.
They are acid stable. The
major cause of bronchiolitis in infants is:
a.
Adenoviruses.
b.
Coronaviruse.
c.
Influenza B virus.
d.
Respiratory syncytial viruses. The
following malignancies are thought to have a viral etiology, EXCEPT.
a.
Hepatocellular carcinoma.
b.
Colonic carcinoma.
c.
Adult T-cell leukaemia.
d.
Burkitts lymphoma. In
cytomegalovirus infection, one statement is FALSE.
a.
Is teratogenic.
b.
Primary infection is usually symptomatic.
c.
May cause infectious mononucleosis-like illness.
d.
May cause severe pneumonia in immunocompromised
individuals. The
following are recognized routes of transmission of HIV infection EXCEPT.
a.
Blood transfusion.
b.
Heterosexual intercourse.
c.
Breast feeding.
d.
Nosocomial infection.
Regarding rotaviruses, one statement is TRUE.
a.
Members of the picornaviridae family.
b.
Infect enterocytes at the apices of villi of the
small intestine.
c.
Common cause of diarrhea in adults.
d.
The disease produced by rotaviruses is treated
by antiviral drugs.
Characteristics of HCV virus include the following, EXCEPT
a.
The different genotypes have different
geographic distribution.
b.
Genotypes 2 & 3 are more likely to respond to
interferon.
c.
Genus hepacivirus.
d.
Has a lipid complex envelope.
Coxsackie B viruses are associated with the following diseases, EXCEPT.
a.
Myocarditis.
b.
Pericarditis.
c.
Herpangina.
d.
Aseptic meningitis. Which
of the following diseases can be controlled by the use of killed
vaccine:
a.
Tuberculosis.
b.
Poliomyelitis.
c.
Measles.
d.
Hepatitis B.
Chlamydia trachomatis is a widely prevalent human pathogen that:
a.
Is a common cause of urinary tract infection.
b.
Is not usually transmitted sexually.
c.
Does not respond to chemotherapy.
d.
Is an intracellular obligatory parasite. All
the following may be associated with immunodeficiency due to HIV
infection EXCEPT.
a.
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia.
b.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
c.
Kaposis sarcoma.
d.
Increased population of T helper lymphocytes
carrying clusters of determinant type IV. The
causative agent of epidemic typhus is:
a.
Rickettsia rickettsii.
b.
Rickettsia akari.
c.
Rickettsia typhi.
d.
Rickettsia prowazeki.
100.
Picornaviridae:
a.
Is small non-enveloped RNA virus having
positive-polarity genome.
b.
Include polioviruses, Coxsackie A & B, and
enterovirus 71.
c.
All members of picornaviridae are acid stable.
d.
Include viruses that can cause meningitis.
SECTION II :
Indicate whether the following statements are True
(T) or False (F)
1.
( ) Enterococci are highly resistant to
antibiotics.
2.
( ) Staphylokinase assist
Staphylococcus aureus to spread.
3.
( ) Erythrogenic toxin produced by
St. pyogenes only when infected with bacteriophage.
4.
( ) Bacteria tolerate high salinity
known as Halophilic.
5.
( ) Plasmid is self replicate and
contains genes for drug resistance
6.
( ) Tinea nigra infections occur on
scalp area
7.
( ) Thrichophton violaceum is most
common cause of tinea capitis in Libya
8.
( ) White piedra is characterized by
macular lesion of stratum corneum
9.
( ) Subcutaneous mycoses can be easily
treated with antifungal drugs
10.
( ) Normal flora consist of non
pathogenic transient flora
11.
( ) Immunization prevents nasopharyngeal
carriage of diphtheroides.
12.
( ) Actinomycosis usually characterized
by sinus formation.
13.
( ) Virulence measure of an organism
ability to produce toxins.
14.
( ) The diagnosis of bacterial infection
always depends on cultural techniques.
15.
( ) Mycoplasma pneumonia is a typical
true bacteria.
16.
( ) Endotoxin play major role in
pathogenicity of the microorganism.
17.
( ) Nosocomial infections always effect
the nose and acquired through the respiratory secretion between the
members of the family.
18.
( )Mycobacterium bovis is found
in cow's milk which unless
pasteurized can cause gastrointestinal tuberculosis in
humans.
19.
( ) A positive tuberculin skin-test
result indicates previous infection
by the organism.
20.
( ) The infectious stage in chlamydiae
is the elementary body.
21.
( )High endothelial venules (HEV)
express specific adhesion molecules which control cell
migration.
22.
( )Immunodeficiencies which affect
mononuclear cells, such as chronic granulomatous
disease. Make the individual susceptible to infection
with pyogenic bacteria.
23.
( )The thymus is found in the neck
overlying the oesophagus.
24.
( )MHC class II upregulated on activated
macrophages.
25.
( )CD34 is confined to bone marrow
precursors.
26.
( )Brutons disease is characterized by
agammaglobulinemia.
27.
( )Allergy or hypersensitivity, is an
exaggerated and adverse expression of certain
protective immune responses that occurs in normal
individuals.
28.
( )IgA deficiency associated with cancer
of the lymphoid organs, often result in life
threatening septiceamia by pyogenic cocci.
29.
( )GVHD is a result of graft rejection
by the host.
30.
( )Tumour can be benign that spreads
(metastasizes) from the tissue of origin to other
particular sites through the circulation.
31.
( )HAV virus is non-enveloped,
icosahedral nucleocapsid and typically enterovis.
32.
( )HDV is a defective virus that
requires the presence of HBV for replication.
33.
( )HBsAg is positive during the (window
period) of hepatitis B infection.
34.
( )Reactivation of latent HSV type 1 may
cause dendritic corneal ulcers.
35.
( )Prions are highly sensitive to
inactivation by heat and UV light.
36.
( )Chlamydia psittacci is
primarily a disease of humans.
37.
( )Epstein-Barr virus is transmitted
predominantly by blood transfusions.
38.
( )Human papilloma viruses replicate in
terminally differentiated keratinocytes.
39.
( )Treatment of HIV-infected patients
with AZT results in elimination of integrated forms
of provirus.
40.
( )Genital herpes infection is always
symptomatic.
SECTION III:
Match between
sentences in column A with sentences in column B
I. A
B
1.
( )Tetracyclines
A. Para-Amino-Benzoic-Acid Competitors
2.
( )β-lactamase
B. Inactivates cephalosporins
3.
( )Sulphonamides C.
β-lactamase resistant penicillin
4.
( )Cloxacillin
D. Inhibits Ribosomes function
E. Interferes with cytoplasmic membrane function
II.
A B
5.
( )Gram negative and rod
(bacillus) shaped. A. Treponema pallidum
6.
( )Penicillin or tetracycline
treatment. B. Borrelia recurrenis
7.
( )Disease transmitted by infected
animals urine. C. Leptospira interrogans
8.
( )Disease transmitted by infected
arthropods. D. All of the above
9.
( )TPHA test
E. None of the above
10.
( ) Gumma lesions form in late
disease.
11.
( )Visualized by dark-field
microscopy.
12.
( )Motile by endo flagella.
III.
A B
13.
( )Mycoplasma
A. Dental caries
14.
( )Strep. pyogenes
B. Vagina normal flora
15.
( )Strep. mutans
C. Food poisoning
16.
( )Strep. agalactiae
D. Lack of cell wall
E. Gastro intestinal
disease
F. ASOT
IV.
A B
17.
( ) Flaccid paralysis.
A. Clostridium perfringens
18.
( )Antibiotic associated
diarrhea. B. Bacillus anthracis
19.
( )Lecithinase
C. C. Clostridium difficile
20.
( )Mlignant
pustule. D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Bacillus cereus
F Clostridium
tetani
V.
A B
21.
( ) Frenudes adjuvant
A. thymus
22.
( ) dimer or secretory IgA
B. parasitic
infections
23.
( ) belonging to primary lymphoid
tissue C. facilitate phagocytosis
24.
( ) elevated IgE levels
D. main antibody in mucosal secretions
25.
( ) Fc fragment of antibody
molecule E. increase immunization of vaccine
VI.
A B
26.
( ) Thyroid Hashimoto thyroiditis
A. enhance humoral immune response
27.
( ) SLE
B. destruction of the thyroid follicles
28.
( ) CD40 expression on APC
C. lymphocytes can migrate through
29.
( ) C3a
D. antibodies against DNA of blood cells
30.
( ) HEV
E. stimulates histamine release
VII.
A B
31.
( ) Aseptic meningitis
A. HIV
32.
( ) Cell-mediated immunity
B. Whooping cough
33.
( ) Ribavirin
C. HSV-2
34.
( ) Acyclovir
D. Astrovirus
35.
( ) Live attenuated vaccine
(Sabin) E. Cytomegalovirus
36.
( ) Inactivated vaccine
F. Tuberculin test
37.
( ) Kaposi sarcoma
G. German measles (rubella)
38.
( ) Paul-Bunnel test
H. Hepatitis C
39.
( ) Diarrhea
I. Mumps
40.
( ) Cataract and deafness
J. Poliomyelitis
MCQ Each question below contains four suggested answers. Please select one best answer to each question.
2) Gram-positive bacteria differ
from gram-negative bacteria in the following: 10) E. coli is characterized by: 11) N. asteroids and A. israelii
have the following characteristics in common: 12) T. pallidum is characterized
by: 13) which one of the following
genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving the food canning
process: 14) These drugs may be used to
treat leprosy except: 16) The immunoglobulin actively
transported into secretions is the following: 17) An antigen can be described
as: 18) Opsonisation means: 19) Regarding plasma cells, which
statement is most correct: 20) Tissue transplants between
different species, such as from pig to man is called: 21) Substances that are
immunogenic only when coupled with a protein carrier are called: 23) Which of the following is not
likely to cause contact dermatitis: 24) Which of the following is
true regarding tumor development: 25) In mismatched blood
transfusion, the rapid destruction of the transfused RBCs is: 26) Regarding respiratory
syncytial virus (RSV) which statement is not correct: 27) Long lasting immunity results
from all the following diseases except: 28) The largest sized viruses
known to man are: 29) The following are examples of
RNA viruses except: 30) Regarding polioviruses the
following statement is most correct: 31) The following is a zoonotic
virus: 32) Epstein-Barr virus is
responsible for the following diseases: 33) Which of the following
viruses may cause gingivo-stomatitis: 34) Arboviruses are called so
because: 35) Roboviruses are called so
because: 36) Antifungal drugs have the
affinity to combine with one of the following in the cell membrane: 37) The causative agent of
systemic mycoses is one of the following: 38) Opportunistic mycoses occur
in: 39) All of the following diseases
are caused by yeast Except one: 40) Isolation of fungi with non
septate hyphae from diabetic patient with rhinocerebral infections is most
commonly due to:
These statements could be true or could be false. Please label true statements by writing the letter (T) and false statements by the letter (F) in front of each statement: 1- (
) All microorganisms are pathogenic to human
MATCHING Select from the first column of statements the one that is most related to those in the second column. Write the number of the first column in front of the second column. You may not use a statement twice
MCQ
a- Algae 2) All of the following microorganisms are members of the normal flora except: a- Lactobacillus species 3) In gram-positive bacteria, the cell wall consists mainly of: a- Peptidoglycan and
lipopolysaccharide 4) Sterilization by hot air oven is achieved at: a- 120 degrees C for 75
minutes 5) Haemophilus influenzae type b may cause: a- Childhood meningitis 6) The most serious type of plague transmitted rapidly from person to person is: a- Septicaemic plague 7) Miliary tuberculosis is most often the result of spread via: a- Lymphatic stream 8) Regarding Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the following are true except: a- Their toxigenic strains
are not invasive 9) Hypovolemic shock is likely to be due to infection with: a- Campylobacter jejuni 10) Atypical pneumonia may be caused by one of the following: a- Legionella pneumophila 11) Weil-Felix reaction is based on the sharing of antigens between rickettsia and: a- Salmonella 12) Streptococcus pyogenes is the common cause of the following except: a- Impetigo 13) Regarding Legionnair's disease the following is true: a- Infection is usually
through aspiration of bacteria in aerosols 14) The following are recognized vectors of rickettsiae except: a- Mites 15) The following are members of the Enterobacteriaceae except: a- Klebsiella pneumoniae 16) The Immunoglobulin related to anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity is: a- IgE 17) The hinge region of an IgG heavy chain is located: a- Between VH and CH1 18) Natural killer (NK) cells have the following properties, except: a- They kill virally
infected cells 19) The following feature may influence immunogenicity of a substance: a- Chemical complexity 20) The following are true regarding antibodies, except: a- They all have alpha heavy
chain 21) The following are true regarding T-cells, except: a- They are the majority of
lymphocytes in the circulation 22) The magic bullet concept of cancer immunotherapy means: a- Injecting patients with
broad spectrum antibiotics 23) Which of the following is a cause of secondary immune deficiency? a- Malnutrition 24) Phagocytosis can be enhanced by the following: a- Adjuvent 25) A graft from one anatomical region to another in the same person is termed: a- Isograft 26) The symmetric protein shell that encloses the viral nucleic acid genome is: a- Capsid 27) Echoviruses may be responsible for a considerable percentage of cases of: a- Poliomyelitis 28) Which of the following viruses is a segmented double-stranded RNA? a- Myxoviruses 29) Coxsackie viruses are similar to polioviruses in all of the following, except: a- Composition of the RNA 30) Adenoviruses: a- Are simple RNA viruses 31) The incubation period of hepatitis A virus is: a- 50 - 150 days 32) The site of reactivation of infection due to Herpes simplex virus type I is: a- Trigeminal nerve 33) The virus that cause vesicular skin lesion is: a- Chicken pox 34) Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a defective virus? a- Hepatitis A virus 35) The following viruses can be transmitted by casual contact, except: a- Poxvirus 36) All of the following statements regarding fungi are true, except: a- Can synthesize
macromolecules from CO2 37) All of the following diseases are due to mycotoxins, except: a- Fungal ball 38) Superficial mycoses may be caused by the following fungi, except: a- Malassezia furfur 39) Concerning systemic mycoses, which statement is not true? a- Most of them can be
treated with amphotercin-B 40) Opportunistic mycoses is common in: a- Patients with chronic
renal failure
1- (
) Antigenic variation is more common in Influenza-B virus
(1) Bacillus anthracis ( ) M-protein (2) Bordetellae pertussis ( ) VDRL (3) Mycobacterium avium ( ) Atypical pneumonia (4) Flavivirus ( ) Anaerobic gram-negative cocci (5) Helicobacter pylori ( ) Dengue fever (6) Gram-negative bacteremia ( ) AIDS (7) Chlamydiae trachomatis ( ) Whooping cough (8) Nocardia ( ) Biological warfare (9) Veillonella parvula ( ) Partially acid-fast filamentous (10) Mycoplasma ( ) Nongonococcal urethritis (11) Treponema pallidum ( ) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (12) Streptococcus pyogenes ( ) Gastric ulcer/carcinoma
More MCQ Samples
(added on Wed January 14th, 2004)
1.
Autoclaving is method achieved by:
2.
Broad-spectrum antibiotics.
a.
Kill both bacteria and viruses.
b.
Kill Gram negative bacteria.
c.
Kill Gram positive bacteria.
d.
b + c are correct.
3.
Pharmaceutical products can be sterilized by.
a.
Autoclave.
b.
Hot air oven.
c.
Filtration.
d.
Boiling.
4.
All of the following drugs are used for the treatment of M.
tuberculosis EXCEPT:
5.
All EXCEPT ONE of the
following may allow recipient cell gain new genetic materials from other
bacteria:
6.
Bacteria lack all the
following, EXCEPT:
7.
Septicemia is clinical
syndrome in which.
8.
During the course of
diseases caused by Salmonella typhi, the organism may be isolated from:
9.
Staphylococcus aureus
produces an enzyme that clots plasma called:
10.
Which of the following
organisms known as primarily nosocomial pathogen.
11.
All EXCEPT ONE are diseases
attributable to local infection with Hemolytic group A Streptococcus pyogenes.
12.
Which of the following organisms are zoonotic.
13.
The following statements concerning Helicobacter pylori are true
EXCEPT:
14.
E. coli is
characterized by:
15.
Which one of the following
genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving the food canning
process:
16.
Staphylococcus aureus
and Staphylococcus epidermidis have the following characteristics in
common:
17.
Which of the following bacteria transmitted via droplet:
18.
Which of the following diseases associated with Clostridium
perfringens.
19.
Group A Streptococci,
classified into several serotype according to.
20.
Which of the following, protect the bacteria from phagocytic action:
21.
Normal flora inhibit all
exposed sites or areas of the body:
22.
All the following are true
for Treponema pallidum EXCEPT:
23.
Resistance to tuberculosis:
24.
Which of the following toxins is produced by Corynebacterium
diphtheriae:
25.
Secondary syphilis is
characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
26.
Regarding the cord factor of
the tubercle bacilli.
27.
The following is true for
the normal microbial flora of men EXCEPT:
28.
Natural defense mechanisms
in normal individuals include :
a. Mucus layer.
b. Lysozyme.
c. Acute phase protein.
d. All the above.
29.
Symptoms associated with
immediate hypersensitivity reaction are caused by:
a.
IgG-mediated activation of the classic complement pathway.
b.
Activation of the alternative complement pathway by enteric bacteria.
c.
IgA-mediated activation of bronchial inflammatory response.
mast cells.
30.
The following cell is the main antibody-producing cell.
a.
Plasma cell.
b.
NK cell.
c.
Lymphocyte.
d.
Mast cell.
31.
Which of the following is an example of delayed hypersensitivity:
a.
Serum sickness.
b. Anaphylaxis.
32.
T suppressor cells (Ts):
a.
Lyse viral infected cells.
b. Associated with type IV hypersensitivity.
c. Suppers B cell and T cell response.
d. All of the above.
31. Opsonisation means:
a.
Specific antibody binding to bacteria making it more susceptible to phagocytosis. b. Opposing the action of antibody by an antigen. c. Activation of complement by antibodies.
d. Hypersensitivity reaction type II.
32. Substance that are immunogenic only when coupled with a protein carrier are called:
a.
Opsonis. b. Haptens. c. Adjuvant. d. Toxoids.
35.
In mismatching blood transfusion, the rapid destruction of the transfused RBCs
is:
a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
36.
HIV can be transmitted by:
37.
Viruses are classified according to:
38.
Which of the following disease a vaccine is not available:
39.
All the following properties are applicable to fungi EXCEPT:
40.
Heterofermentative
Lactobacillus produce:
41.
All the following properties
are correct about Actinomyces EXCEPT:
42.
Dimorphism in candida refers
to its:
43.
Classification of dental
caries based on:
44.
Which of the following
streptococci produce glucan and luvan from polysaccharide.
45.
The following processes required to form dental plaque EXCEPT:
46.
All EXCEPT ONE of the
following are acidogenic.
47.
All of the following
statement are not ecological interaction in plaque EXCEPT:
48.
The first Streptococci isolated from the oral cavity is:
49.
All EXCEPT ONE of the
following bacteria can be isolated from dental plaque:
50.
Which of the following bacteria are not isolate before teeth eruption.
51.
Which of the following affecting bacterial growth in mouth.
52.
All are factors that
predispose the host oral candidiasis EXCEPT:
53.
Which of the following is correct about differences between fungi and
viruses:
54.
Enamel caries can be caused
by:
55.
Which of the following bacteria associate more with carious dentine.
MATCHING (0.25 mark each)
Select
from the first column of statement the one that is most related to those in the
second column. Write the number of the second column in front of the first
column. You may not use a statement twice.
Q1.
1)
------Vaccine not available
a) Acute necrotizing ulcerative membranous.
2)
------Viellonella species
b) Cytotoxin.
3)
----- Treponema dentirola c)
Hepatitis C.
4)
----- Bordetella pertussis d)
Syphilis.
5)
----- Acid -fast bacillus
e) Ziehl-Neelsen.
f) Transfer lactic acid to weak acid.
Q2.
1)
-------- Bacillus anthracis
a) Gingival crevice.
2)
-------- Fusibacterium nucleatum
b) Impetigo.
3)
-------- Bacillus cereus
c) Malignant pustule.
4)
-------- Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d) Food poisoning.
5)
------- Diphtheria
e) Proctitis disease.
f) Metachromatic granules.
Q3
1)
-------- Streptococus milleri
a)
Cellulitis.
2)
-------- Yeast
b) Dental abscesses.
3)
-------- Saliva
c) Buffering function.
4)
-------- Uptake carbon from CO2 d)
Oral thrush.
5)
-------- Flagella
e) Autotrophe. f) Carry H-antigen.
Q4.
1)
------- Grow at 0-20 oC
a) Penicillin binding proteins.
2)
------- Carboxy peptides
b)
Gingival fluid.
3)
------- Glycoproteins
c) Psychrophiles.
4)
------- Serum
d) Pellicle.
e)
Secretory antibody.
Q5.
1)
------ Plasma cells
a) Large phagocytic cells.
2)
------ T cells
b) Cells activated in anaphylaxis.
3)
------ Macrophages
c) Principal antibody-producing cells.
4)
------ Basophils
d) Thymus-processed.
e)
Bursa of Fabricius in birds.
Q6.
1)
-------- Streptococcus mutans a)
Produces extracellular.
2)
-------- Actinomyces naesulandii
b) Liver & brain abscesses.
3)
-------- Peptostreptococci c)
Acidogenic & cariogenic.
4)
-------- Streptococcus milleri
d) Sub-gingival plaque.
e) Produced mainly by macrophages.
Answer all the following 10 questions Q1.Match each diagnostic test with the organism it helps identify:
Q2. What is the principle of single radial immuno-diffusion method? ................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................ ................................................................................................................................ Q3. Name a pathogen for which the
following selective media is used : Q4- b- Define "cytopathic effect": ...................................................................................................................................... Q5- Give the purpose of using each of
the following: c- autoclave
.
Q 6- Concerning ELISA test, answer the
following questions: ........................................................................................................................................ ............................................................................................................................
Q7- Regarding identification of
Enterobacteriaceae members, fill in the table by writing the sign (+) or (-)
in the appropriate space under each test:
Q8- A young girl admitted to hospital
suffering from hair loss, with a possible diagnosis of "tinea capitis". Q9- Concerning bacterial motility: Q10- A child arrived to the hospital
with fever, vomiting and neck stiffness, suggesting a preliminary diagnosis
of infective meningitis:
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